It is ungrammatical to use 'has' in questions that begin with 'do' or 'does' Shouldn't the title be “have trump's political views…”, what with ‘views’ being plural In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on whether the noun is first, second or third person (eg do i, do you or , does he)
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The 'have' part of the question is not conjugated and appears as the bare infinitive regardless of.
Difference between has to be, was to be, had to be, and should be ask question asked 10 years, 8 months ago modified 7 years, 9 months ago
I have a question about where to use is and has Tea is come or tea has come lunch is ready or lunch has ready he is come back or he has come back she is assigned for work or. The question asked covers more ground than just have or has I think op's example is just one example and the question asked is in order to know if who agrees with the verb when who is subject of this verb.
She doesn't has a book She doesn't have a book Why is the first sentence wrong We use 'has' with singular, and 'she' is singular.
Could you please tell me the difference between has vs has been
1) the idea has deleted vs. 2) the idea has been deleted what is the difference between these two? You don't use the word have as a main verb in the progressive to talk about things you own or possess So the correct sentence is
He has a cell phone However, you can use it in the progressive if you talk about actions, events, or activities as follows He's having a chat with joan He is having a rest just now
They are having a party tomorrow.
0 what has happened will come in present perfect tense Whereas what happened comes in simple past tense In the first question you have asked, the correct option would be what happened as the work isn't affecting the present now and in the second question the correct one would be have learnt your lesson as you will have to use have with you. It has got four legs the verb is has got, and has is an auxiliary
This is how we tend to use contractions when speaking fairly carefully When speaking quickly, has as a main verb tends to be reduced to /əz/ (especially in british accents) this might be written as 's. So yes, in these cases do becomes does for third person singular because it is finite. The 'have' part of the question is not conjugated and appears as the bare infinitive regardless of the person of the.
Has trump's political views changed on israel's war in gaza
Another user felt it wasn't grammatically correct
